Equinemerousness: A Bijection Existence Proof
I'm told that if $m<n$, then $(0,1)$ and $(m,n)$ are equinumerous. I'm
asked to prove this by showing that there exists a specific bijection
between them. I came up with this: $$f(x)=(n-m)x+m,~~\text{for }0<x<1$$
Is this a good function to choose?
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